BOC review questions
1. A Q-angle of >25 degrees may predispose and athlete to what postural deformity?
A. Excessive genu varis
B. Excessive genu valgus
C. Genu recurvatum
D. Coxa valgus
E. Coxa vara
2. All of the following are factors in lower extremity overuse syndromes in runners except:
A. Poor footwear
B. Poor posture
C. Change in surface
D. Short Strides
E. A and B
3. When working on a bleeding athlete, what should the athletic trainer always do?
A. Avoid touching the bloody areas
B. Wash hands before treatment
C. Wear gloves
D. Wear eye protection
E. Elevate the body part
4. Trendelenburg's test is a method used to evaluate the competence of what structures?
A. Hip flexors
B. Peroneal muscles
C. Hip abductors
D. Erector spinae
E. Abdominals
5. What evaluative test is used to examine the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee?
A. Pivot shift test
B. Valgus stress test
C. Lachman's test
D. Varus stress test
E. None of the above
6. According to the ASCM, when performing flexibility exercises, how long should a stretch be held for optimal results?
A. 5 to 10 seconds; after 10 seconds minimal/no results are achieved
B. 10 to 30 seconds; only as long as they feel comfortable
C. 40 to 60 seconds; no less than 45 seconds
D. 60 to 90; until the athlete feels some mild discomfort
E. A minimum of one and a half to two minutes
7. Which of the following stages of disease prevention focuses on early detection and appropriate referral?
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Initial stage
D. Tertiary stage
E. None of the above
8. All of the following symptoms are considered "red flags", requiring urgent referral to a physician, except:
A. Persistent headaches
B. Constant pain
C. Insomnia
D. Malaise, fatigue
E. Hunger
9. What type of stretching is not recommended because of the potential for causing muscle soreness and possible injury when done over a period of time?
A. Ballistic
B. PNF
C. Static
D. Concentric
E. None of the above
10. A soccer player sustains a strain to the quadriceps muscle group. You are trying to prevent atrophy during rehabilitation. What method of treatment would you use?
A. Ultrasound and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
B. Interferential current (IFC)
C. Stretching
D. High volt galvanic stimulation
E. Russian stimulation
11. Prevention of a chronic or debilitating illness or injury through appropriate care and rehabilitation is called what?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
12. Which test, if positive, is indicative of a torn posterior cruciate ligament?
A. Sag sign
B. Anterior drawer sign
C. McMurray's sign
D. Ober's sign
E. Lachman's sign
13. At what point should the athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an injury begin?
A. At the moment the injury is witnessed
B. Once the athlete has been stabilized in the athletic training room
C. Once the athletic trainer receives a medical referral from a doctor
D. After the athlete is seen by the team doctor
E. B and D
14. What quick test can be performed to check if nerve root L5 is intact?
A. Have the athlete flex his or her hip while standing
B. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes
C. Have the athlete extend his or her great toe
D. Have the athlete extend his or her hip
E. Have the athlete flex his or her knee
15. Information gained during the palpation phase of the athletic trainer's initial assessment might include all of the following except:
A. Presence of crepitus
B. Sensory function
C. Presence of a deformity
D. Degree of functional movement
E. A and B
16. The _____ pulse and _____ pulse should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee area to make sure the peripheral circulation to the involved limb is adequate.
A. Posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis
B. Anterior tibial, plantar
C. Saphenous, dorsalis pedis
D. Femoral, posterior tibial
E. Femoral, popliteal
17. The inflammatory process includes all of the following signs and symptoms except:
A. Redness
B. Pain
C. Warmth
D. Swelling
E. Numbness
18. All of the following parameters should be assessed when checking the neurovascular status of an injured limb except:
A. Sensation
B. The pulse distal to the injury
C. Motor function
D. Joint range of motion
E. Atrophic changes
19.What is the best position for the athlete to be in to muscle test the piriformis?
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Supine
D. Side lying
E. Standing
20. What is the proper method to manually muscle test the biceps femoris muscle?
A. Sitting, resisting knee extension
B. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in external rotation
C. Sitting, resisting hip flexion
D. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in internal rotation
E. Sitting, resisting elbow flexion
21.What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the S1 nerve root?
A. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes
B. Have the athlete manually resist ankle inversion
C. Have the athlete manually resist great toe extension
D. Assess the athlete's ability to squat
E. Resisted ankle inversion
22. All of the following movements occur in the sagittal plane except:
A. Hip abduction
B. Shoulder flexion
C. Knee extension
D. Hip flexion
E. Elbow flexion
23. Which muscle flexes both the foot and the knee?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Flexor digitorum
C. Posterior tibialis
D. Anterior tibialis
E. Gastrocnemius
24. The rectus femoris muscle ______ and ______ when in contracts.
A. Flexes the hip, externally rotates the hip
B. Extends the hip, flexes the knee
C. Flexes the knee, plantar flexes the ankle
D. Flexes the hip, extends the knee
E. Extends the hip, extends the knee
25. Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip?
A. Adductor magnus
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Gracilis
D. Tensor fascia latae
E. Gluteus minimus
26. Which nerve innervates the hip adductor musculature?
A. Femoral, superior gluteal
B. Femoral, tibial
C. Femoral, obturator
D. Femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal
E. Tibial, obturator
27. What position is the "recommended" position for manually muscle testing the glutues medius muscle?
A. Side lying, with the affected limb on top
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Sitting
E. Standing
28. What is the average range of motion of knee flexion?
A. 0-180 degrees
B. 0-120 degrees
C. 0-100 degrees
D. 0-155 degrees
E. 0-135 degrees
29. In what position should the athlete be to manually muscle test the hip flexors, and where should the athletic trainer's force be directed during testing?
A. Prone, with the force directed down onto the posterior thigh
B. Side lying, with the force directed down onto the side of the thigh
C. Sitting, with the force directed down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh
D. Sitting, with the force directed down onto the medial aspect of the thigh
E. None of the above
30. True leg-length discrepancy is measured between which two points?
A. The posterior inferior iliac spine to the medial malleolus
B. The umbilicus to the midpatella
C. The umbilicus to the lateral malleolus
D. The anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus
E. The anterior superior iliac spine to Gerdy's tubercle
31. A ______ is a device used to measure joint range of motion
A. Goniometer
B. Dynamometer
C. Caliper
D. Flexometer
E. Sphygmomanometer
32.Tenderness and pain with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature following overexertion is indicative of which syndrome?
A. Chondromalacia
B. Pes anserinus bursitis
C. Periostitis
D. Nerve compression syndrome
E. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
33. Who is the only person who can legally diagnose a medical problem?
A. The school nurse
B. A physician
C. The athletic trainer
D. An emergency medical technician (EMT) or paramedic
E. Physical therapist
34. When taking a history during a physical examination of an athlete, all of the following information is pertinent except:
A. The mechanism of the injury
B. If a "pop" or "snap" was heard or felt
C. If the athlete is on medication
D. Whether or not the athlete has medical insurance
E. History of previous injury
35. What problem might the athletic trainer see if the L4 nerve root was compressed?
A. Hip flexor weakness
B. Plantar flexion weakness
C. Knee extension weakness
D. Dorsiflexion weakness
E. Drop foot
36. Which of the following is used to detect a possible meniscal tear in the knee?
A. Faber's test
B. Allen's test
C. Jerk test
D. Lachman's test
E. McMurray's test
37. What type of force typically causes injury to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament of the knee?
A. A valgus force with the tibia in external rotation
B. A varus force with the knee in full extension
C. A valgus force with the femur in external rotation
D. A valgus force with the knee in recurvatum
E. None of the above
38. All of the following injuries might be associated with a "popping" sensation of the knee joint except:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament injury
B. Torn meniscus
C. Subluxed patella
D. Iliotibial band friction syndrome
E. B and C
39. A tennis player comes to the athletic trainer complaining of medial thigh pain. He is limping and has pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion. There is diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis along the proximal aspect of the medial thigh. What is the probable cause of pain?
A. Hip flexor rupture
B. Groin strain
C. Medial hamstring strain
D. Popliteal strain
E. None of the above
40. A lacrosse player comes limping into the athletic training room with assistance from a coach. He is holding his leg in slight hip and knee flexion. There is a large bulge in the proximal thigh. During the exam, the athletic trainer requests the athlete to extend his knee as he sits on the edge of a taping table. He is able to partially straighten his leg, although there is pain down the anterior thigh area with the attempt to move it. What does the athletic trainer suspect is wrong?
A. Biceps femoris rupture
B. Femoral nerve injury
C. Ruptured rectus femoris muscle
D. Obturator nerve injury
E. Iliopsoas rupture
41. A basketball player reports to the athletic training room complaining of a "burning" pain along the lateral aspect of his right knee during and after running. No edema or ecchymosis is found during the exam, but he is tender to palpation of the affected area. Which of the following special tests might be positive?
A. Lachman's test
B. Patella apprehension test
C. Ober's test
D. Sag sign
E. Faber's test
42. An athlete presents with loss of strength at the L3 and L4 nerve root levels. What muscle should the athletic trainer test to confirm an injury at this level?
A. Gluteus minimus
B. Flexor hallicus longus
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Adductor magnus
E. Quadriceps
43. How is the strength of the pes anserinus musculature manually muscle tested
A. Resistance to knee flexion and internal rotation of the lower leg
B. Resistance to knee extension and hip adduction
C. Resistance to knee flexion and external rotation of the lower leg
D. Resistance to knee extension and internal rotation of the lower leg
E. Resistance to knee flexion and ankle inversion
44. All of the following treatments would be inappropriate for an acute quadriceps contusion except:
A. Light massage
B. Pulsed ultrasound
C. Ice massage followed by gentle stretch
D. Ice pack with compression wrap with knee in flexion
E. Heat pack and massage
45. Shock after a severe injury can result from _____ or _____.
A. Pain, increased blood pressure
B. Decreased heart rate, infection
C. Hemorrhage, hypothermia
D. Hemorrhage, stagnation of blood
E. Increased heart rate, pain
46. When evaluating an unconscious athlete, what should the athletic trainer do first?
A. Check for sources of bleeding
B. Take vital signs
C. Check for normal extremity movement
D. Take the athlete's pulse rate
E. Check that the athlete's airway is open and he or she is breathing normally
47. An athlete reports to the athletic trainer with a deep laceration to his thigh. The cut is approximately 1/8-inch deep, 1-inch long, and bleeding moderately. What would be proper steps for the athletic trainer to take to treat his wound?
A. Use a pressure bandage to control the bleeding, keep the wound clean and free of debris, use Steri-Strips for temporary closure, and apply ice and compression to the area.
B. Use a pressure bandage to control the bleeding, keep the wound clean, suture the laceration, and cover with a sterile dressing
C. Wipe the area clean with soap and water, use and antibiotic ointment to minimize infection, suture the wound, and cover it with a sterile dressing
D. Wipe the area clean with soap and water, apply a large adhesive bandage, and apply ice to the area
E. None of the above
48. An athlete has a suspected fracture involving the knee. Which of the following areas should be splinted?
A. The ankle and the lower leg areas
B. The knee and thigh
C. The ankle, knee and thigh
D. The lower limb joints and one side of the trunk
E. The hip and ankle
49. When choosing a prophylactic knee brace, the brace should meet all of the following criteria except:
A. It should always be custom-molded to avoid a poorly fitting brace
B. It should not interfere with normal knee function
C. It should not increase injuries to the lower extremity
D. It should be cost-effective and durable
E. B and D
50. A second-degree medial collateral ligament sprain is characterized by all of the following except:
A. Pain along the medial joint line
B. No gross knee instability, but mild ligamentous laxity is noted in full knee extension during valgus stress testing
C. Difficulty in actively flexing and extending the knee
D. Immediate severe pain following the feeling of a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee joint
E. A and B
A. Excessive genu varis
B. Excessive genu valgus
C. Genu recurvatum
D. Coxa valgus
E. Coxa vara
2. All of the following are factors in lower extremity overuse syndromes in runners except:
A. Poor footwear
B. Poor posture
C. Change in surface
D. Short Strides
E. A and B
3. When working on a bleeding athlete, what should the athletic trainer always do?
A. Avoid touching the bloody areas
B. Wash hands before treatment
C. Wear gloves
D. Wear eye protection
E. Elevate the body part
4. Trendelenburg's test is a method used to evaluate the competence of what structures?
A. Hip flexors
B. Peroneal muscles
C. Hip abductors
D. Erector spinae
E. Abdominals
5. What evaluative test is used to examine the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee?
A. Pivot shift test
B. Valgus stress test
C. Lachman's test
D. Varus stress test
E. None of the above
6. According to the ASCM, when performing flexibility exercises, how long should a stretch be held for optimal results?
A. 5 to 10 seconds; after 10 seconds minimal/no results are achieved
B. 10 to 30 seconds; only as long as they feel comfortable
C. 40 to 60 seconds; no less than 45 seconds
D. 60 to 90; until the athlete feels some mild discomfort
E. A minimum of one and a half to two minutes
7. Which of the following stages of disease prevention focuses on early detection and appropriate referral?
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Initial stage
D. Tertiary stage
E. None of the above
8. All of the following symptoms are considered "red flags", requiring urgent referral to a physician, except:
A. Persistent headaches
B. Constant pain
C. Insomnia
D. Malaise, fatigue
E. Hunger
9. What type of stretching is not recommended because of the potential for causing muscle soreness and possible injury when done over a period of time?
A. Ballistic
B. PNF
C. Static
D. Concentric
E. None of the above
10. A soccer player sustains a strain to the quadriceps muscle group. You are trying to prevent atrophy during rehabilitation. What method of treatment would you use?
A. Ultrasound and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
B. Interferential current (IFC)
C. Stretching
D. High volt galvanic stimulation
E. Russian stimulation
11. Prevention of a chronic or debilitating illness or injury through appropriate care and rehabilitation is called what?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
12. Which test, if positive, is indicative of a torn posterior cruciate ligament?
A. Sag sign
B. Anterior drawer sign
C. McMurray's sign
D. Ober's sign
E. Lachman's sign
13. At what point should the athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an injury begin?
A. At the moment the injury is witnessed
B. Once the athlete has been stabilized in the athletic training room
C. Once the athletic trainer receives a medical referral from a doctor
D. After the athlete is seen by the team doctor
E. B and D
14. What quick test can be performed to check if nerve root L5 is intact?
A. Have the athlete flex his or her hip while standing
B. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes
C. Have the athlete extend his or her great toe
D. Have the athlete extend his or her hip
E. Have the athlete flex his or her knee
15. Information gained during the palpation phase of the athletic trainer's initial assessment might include all of the following except:
A. Presence of crepitus
B. Sensory function
C. Presence of a deformity
D. Degree of functional movement
E. A and B
16. The _____ pulse and _____ pulse should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee area to make sure the peripheral circulation to the involved limb is adequate.
A. Posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis
B. Anterior tibial, plantar
C. Saphenous, dorsalis pedis
D. Femoral, posterior tibial
E. Femoral, popliteal
17. The inflammatory process includes all of the following signs and symptoms except:
A. Redness
B. Pain
C. Warmth
D. Swelling
E. Numbness
18. All of the following parameters should be assessed when checking the neurovascular status of an injured limb except:
A. Sensation
B. The pulse distal to the injury
C. Motor function
D. Joint range of motion
E. Atrophic changes
19.What is the best position for the athlete to be in to muscle test the piriformis?
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Supine
D. Side lying
E. Standing
20. What is the proper method to manually muscle test the biceps femoris muscle?
A. Sitting, resisting knee extension
B. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in external rotation
C. Sitting, resisting hip flexion
D. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in internal rotation
E. Sitting, resisting elbow flexion
21.What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the S1 nerve root?
A. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes
B. Have the athlete manually resist ankle inversion
C. Have the athlete manually resist great toe extension
D. Assess the athlete's ability to squat
E. Resisted ankle inversion
22. All of the following movements occur in the sagittal plane except:
A. Hip abduction
B. Shoulder flexion
C. Knee extension
D. Hip flexion
E. Elbow flexion
23. Which muscle flexes both the foot and the knee?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Flexor digitorum
C. Posterior tibialis
D. Anterior tibialis
E. Gastrocnemius
24. The rectus femoris muscle ______ and ______ when in contracts.
A. Flexes the hip, externally rotates the hip
B. Extends the hip, flexes the knee
C. Flexes the knee, plantar flexes the ankle
D. Flexes the hip, extends the knee
E. Extends the hip, extends the knee
25. Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip?
A. Adductor magnus
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Gracilis
D. Tensor fascia latae
E. Gluteus minimus
26. Which nerve innervates the hip adductor musculature?
A. Femoral, superior gluteal
B. Femoral, tibial
C. Femoral, obturator
D. Femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal
E. Tibial, obturator
27. What position is the "recommended" position for manually muscle testing the glutues medius muscle?
A. Side lying, with the affected limb on top
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Sitting
E. Standing
28. What is the average range of motion of knee flexion?
A. 0-180 degrees
B. 0-120 degrees
C. 0-100 degrees
D. 0-155 degrees
E. 0-135 degrees
29. In what position should the athlete be to manually muscle test the hip flexors, and where should the athletic trainer's force be directed during testing?
A. Prone, with the force directed down onto the posterior thigh
B. Side lying, with the force directed down onto the side of the thigh
C. Sitting, with the force directed down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh
D. Sitting, with the force directed down onto the medial aspect of the thigh
E. None of the above
30. True leg-length discrepancy is measured between which two points?
A. The posterior inferior iliac spine to the medial malleolus
B. The umbilicus to the midpatella
C. The umbilicus to the lateral malleolus
D. The anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus
E. The anterior superior iliac spine to Gerdy's tubercle
31. A ______ is a device used to measure joint range of motion
A. Goniometer
B. Dynamometer
C. Caliper
D. Flexometer
E. Sphygmomanometer
32.Tenderness and pain with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature following overexertion is indicative of which syndrome?
A. Chondromalacia
B. Pes anserinus bursitis
C. Periostitis
D. Nerve compression syndrome
E. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
33. Who is the only person who can legally diagnose a medical problem?
A. The school nurse
B. A physician
C. The athletic trainer
D. An emergency medical technician (EMT) or paramedic
E. Physical therapist
34. When taking a history during a physical examination of an athlete, all of the following information is pertinent except:
A. The mechanism of the injury
B. If a "pop" or "snap" was heard or felt
C. If the athlete is on medication
D. Whether or not the athlete has medical insurance
E. History of previous injury
35. What problem might the athletic trainer see if the L4 nerve root was compressed?
A. Hip flexor weakness
B. Plantar flexion weakness
C. Knee extension weakness
D. Dorsiflexion weakness
E. Drop foot
36. Which of the following is used to detect a possible meniscal tear in the knee?
A. Faber's test
B. Allen's test
C. Jerk test
D. Lachman's test
E. McMurray's test
37. What type of force typically causes injury to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament of the knee?
A. A valgus force with the tibia in external rotation
B. A varus force with the knee in full extension
C. A valgus force with the femur in external rotation
D. A valgus force with the knee in recurvatum
E. None of the above
38. All of the following injuries might be associated with a "popping" sensation of the knee joint except:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament injury
B. Torn meniscus
C. Subluxed patella
D. Iliotibial band friction syndrome
E. B and C
39. A tennis player comes to the athletic trainer complaining of medial thigh pain. He is limping and has pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion. There is diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis along the proximal aspect of the medial thigh. What is the probable cause of pain?
A. Hip flexor rupture
B. Groin strain
C. Medial hamstring strain
D. Popliteal strain
E. None of the above
40. A lacrosse player comes limping into the athletic training room with assistance from a coach. He is holding his leg in slight hip and knee flexion. There is a large bulge in the proximal thigh. During the exam, the athletic trainer requests the athlete to extend his knee as he sits on the edge of a taping table. He is able to partially straighten his leg, although there is pain down the anterior thigh area with the attempt to move it. What does the athletic trainer suspect is wrong?
A. Biceps femoris rupture
B. Femoral nerve injury
C. Ruptured rectus femoris muscle
D. Obturator nerve injury
E. Iliopsoas rupture
41. A basketball player reports to the athletic training room complaining of a "burning" pain along the lateral aspect of his right knee during and after running. No edema or ecchymosis is found during the exam, but he is tender to palpation of the affected area. Which of the following special tests might be positive?
A. Lachman's test
B. Patella apprehension test
C. Ober's test
D. Sag sign
E. Faber's test
42. An athlete presents with loss of strength at the L3 and L4 nerve root levels. What muscle should the athletic trainer test to confirm an injury at this level?
A. Gluteus minimus
B. Flexor hallicus longus
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Adductor magnus
E. Quadriceps
43. How is the strength of the pes anserinus musculature manually muscle tested
A. Resistance to knee flexion and internal rotation of the lower leg
B. Resistance to knee extension and hip adduction
C. Resistance to knee flexion and external rotation of the lower leg
D. Resistance to knee extension and internal rotation of the lower leg
E. Resistance to knee flexion and ankle inversion
44. All of the following treatments would be inappropriate for an acute quadriceps contusion except:
A. Light massage
B. Pulsed ultrasound
C. Ice massage followed by gentle stretch
D. Ice pack with compression wrap with knee in flexion
E. Heat pack and massage
45. Shock after a severe injury can result from _____ or _____.
A. Pain, increased blood pressure
B. Decreased heart rate, infection
C. Hemorrhage, hypothermia
D. Hemorrhage, stagnation of blood
E. Increased heart rate, pain
46. When evaluating an unconscious athlete, what should the athletic trainer do first?
A. Check for sources of bleeding
B. Take vital signs
C. Check for normal extremity movement
D. Take the athlete's pulse rate
E. Check that the athlete's airway is open and he or she is breathing normally
47. An athlete reports to the athletic trainer with a deep laceration to his thigh. The cut is approximately 1/8-inch deep, 1-inch long, and bleeding moderately. What would be proper steps for the athletic trainer to take to treat his wound?
A. Use a pressure bandage to control the bleeding, keep the wound clean and free of debris, use Steri-Strips for temporary closure, and apply ice and compression to the area.
B. Use a pressure bandage to control the bleeding, keep the wound clean, suture the laceration, and cover with a sterile dressing
C. Wipe the area clean with soap and water, use and antibiotic ointment to minimize infection, suture the wound, and cover it with a sterile dressing
D. Wipe the area clean with soap and water, apply a large adhesive bandage, and apply ice to the area
E. None of the above
48. An athlete has a suspected fracture involving the knee. Which of the following areas should be splinted?
A. The ankle and the lower leg areas
B. The knee and thigh
C. The ankle, knee and thigh
D. The lower limb joints and one side of the trunk
E. The hip and ankle
49. When choosing a prophylactic knee brace, the brace should meet all of the following criteria except:
A. It should always be custom-molded to avoid a poorly fitting brace
B. It should not interfere with normal knee function
C. It should not increase injuries to the lower extremity
D. It should be cost-effective and durable
E. B and D
50. A second-degree medial collateral ligament sprain is characterized by all of the following except:
A. Pain along the medial joint line
B. No gross knee instability, but mild ligamentous laxity is noted in full knee extension during valgus stress testing
C. Difficulty in actively flexing and extending the knee
D. Immediate severe pain following the feeling of a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee joint
E. A and B